Bob Munson

Recap Of 4/6/2015 28 Board IMP Individual

Only 3 double digit swings this time.  Two red games bid/not bid and one slam bid/not bid.  All swings this time were in bidding judgment – this seems to be my usual conclusion as I review the results.

 
4
Both
West
N
Jerry
Q108
Q43
AQ92
KJ5
 
W
Bob
J93
10972
1064
AQ3
4
E
Mark
K72
AJ5
73
109742
 
S
Bill
A654
K86
KJ85
86
 
W
Bob
N
Jerry
E
Mark
S
Bill
Pass
1
Pass
1
Pass
1NT
Pass
2NT
Pass
3NT

‘Everyone’ knows ‘bid red games’ – but the IMP odds really only make it advisable when you are down only 1 if the contract fails and the likelihood of making is 38% or better.  With 25 HCP and stoppers in every suit, 3NT seems reasonable – certainly can’t fault the bidding.  But with both hands balanced, where do you get tricks?  I’m not exactly certain how to compute the likelihood of 9 tricks, given the NS hands with EW passing throughout.  

If clubs are 4-4, you still figure to lose 3 club tricks plus a heart and one or more spades.  On a different layout, you might get a heart lead and lose 3 hearts a spade and a club.  But, when a club is led in this layout and the AQ are in the slot, and spades are 3-3, and you guess the spade layout, 3+0+4+2 gets you to 9 tricks before the bad guys get 5.  This game doesn’t seem to clear the 38% threshold, but…it made.  So, lose 10 IMPs.

 
7
Both
South
N
Jerry
Q54
A642
A1032
QJ
 
W
Manfred
973
J1075
J65
965
3
E
Chris
62
KQ93
974
K843
 
S
Bob
AKJ108
8
KQ8
A1072
 
W
Manfred
N
Jerry
E
Chris
S
Bob
1
Pass
1NT
Pass
2
Pass
4
All Pass
 

Well, what can I say.  I don’t like partner’s “1NT forcing” and I would like to blame this disaster on him…but I can’t.  What can he have?  Either some hand with 3 card support that he considered a limit raise (but then my club bid improved his hand) or else he had some game hand that decided to bid go through 1NT anyway.  If the former, the KQ and Q are not enough to bid like that, and even if that was all he had, the 5 level is rather safe.  I can’t come up with any reason why I failed to apply RKCB other than I was asleep at the switch.  Sorry partner/teammates. 13 IMPs away for missing this cold slam.

 
28
N-S
West
N
Bruce
4
AQJ8
KJ86
AQ104
 
W
Manfred
J75
K65
Q75
K542
5
E
Bob
K32
109742
A
9873
 
S
Mark
AQ10986
3
109432
J
 
W
Manfred
N
Bruce
E
Bob
S
Mark
Pass
1
1
1
2
2NT
Pass
4
All Pass
 
 
 
W
Bill
N
Jerry
E
Ed
S
Chris
Pass
1
Pass
1
Pass
2
Pass
2
Pass
2NT
Pass
3
All Pass
 
 
 

Game for NS didn’t have to work as well as it did (5 4 and 3NT are all reasonable).  

In 5 – cross ruff your way to 11 tricks, perhaps trying a few finesses along the way

In 4 – draw trump and either lose 1 trump and 2 diamonds or 2 trump (depending on how the opponents cards are divided) and then guess the diamonds for one loser

In 3NT (find 9 tricks somewhere – rather easy when 3 kings are all onside)

I don’t know which game is superior, all provide reasonable shots at game, and all make game.  Do they clear the previously mentioned 38% hurdle for a red game?  I think so, but hard to compute.  

There can’t be much to recommend my 1 bid other than it was my turn to bid.  EW never bid at the other table and it is hard to say how/why my bidding got my opponents to game and/or how no EW bidding kept my teammates out of any game at the other table.  In any case, our opponents got to game, our teammates did not, lose 10 IMPs.

In summary, all 3 swings had nothing special to the play, lead or defense – bidding was everything.


3 Comments

CrisApril 9th, 2015 at 1:11 am

Considering #7:
I like to distinguish between non-slammish game-going hands by making the leaps Fast Arrival picture bids. North’s hand has too much slam potential to go through forcing NT, where you are pretty much locked in to bidding game on the second round. I’d bid 2c over 1s – an alertable GF bid this is either natural or balanced (2 of a red suit would be 5+-c). This is the way to show a GF hand w 3-c support, which you show on the next round of bidding. Now opener knows for sure you have 3-c support and you’ve preserved room for exploration for the slam. Partnerships then should discuss opener’s second bid. I think 2M is 6-c (or 5-c that will play opposite xx) and 2NT is intentional. This leaves 2d as sometimes being 3-c. Notice that with both the 2c and 2d bids you have preserved maximum space. (This all fits fairly well w playing 1M-1NT as semi-forcing.)

Bob RichardsonApril 9th, 2015 at 6:52 pm

#7 Looking at N’s hand, your KNOW you want to be in a spade game after the opening bid, especially playing IMPs. What better way to show your hand than to make a reasonable 2/1 bid and then fast arrive. I see nothing wrong with a 2D response, rather than keeping partner in the dark. Sure Bob COULD have “come to the table” but why make life difficult?

Jeff LehmanApril 13th, 2015 at 8:52 pm

With others, I think North on #7 had a 2D response. Change the CQJ to the Cxx and I would agree with the 1NT response. Might still make 6S even opposite xx, but I could live with that miss. After start of 1S-2D; 3C (extra value high reverse)-3S, reaching 6 is much easier.

I would also prefer different auctions for responder on #28. Prefer second round diamond jumps by responder.

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